Conversation I saw between a Muslim and a Christian on tik tok

When God said ‘I Am That I Am’ in Exodus 3:14, He was making a direct statement about His eternal nature. However, when Jesus said ‘before Abraham was, I am’ (John 8:58), he was speaking about his preexistence, not claiming to be God. Even prophets existed in God’s knowledge before their birth. Also, if Jesus was claiming to be God, why did he say in John 17:3 that the Father is ‘the only true God

Hebrews 1:8 is a quotation from Psalm 45:6, where the term ‘God’ (Elohim) is used in a poetic or honorary sense. Even in the Bible, the term ‘god’ can sometimes be used for others in positions of positions of authority (e.g., Exodus 7:1, where Moses is called ‘a god’ to Pharaoh). The very next verse, Hebrews 1:9, clarifies that Jesus has a God: ‘Therefore God, your God, has anointed you.’ If Jesus has a God, how can he be the Almighty God?

When Jesus said, ‘I and the Father are one’ (John 10:30), he meant unity in purpose, not that they are literally the same being. In John 17:21, Jesus also prays for his disciples to be one just as he

Corinthians 13:14 mentions Jesus, God, and the Holy Spirit, but it does not say they are one being or that they are equal. Paul frequently distinguishes Jesus from God (e.g., 1 Corinthians 8:6: Yet for us, there is one God, the Father… and one Lord, Jesus Christ’). If they were truly co-equal, why does Jesus call the Father ‘the only true God’ in John 17:3?

How would you guys go about debunking this ? Is it as simple as the Muslim simply misinterpreting it ?