Are retaliatory tariffs equally irrational as initial tariffs?

I fully understand that tariffs are irrational from a purely economic perspective. It is akin to shooting oneself in the foot. There is some shrapnel which hits nearby people, making them unhappy, but the point is that the fired bullet does not increase the shooter’s welfare.

When a country issues a retaliatory tariff in response, is that country simply declaring, “Because you shot yourself in your foot, I too will shoot myself in my foot!” If so, why do they do this, and why is the practice of issuing retaliatory tariffs so common?

I understand there are non-economic factors that could justify tariffs (initial or retaliatory) as rational. My perception is that economists criticize initial tariffs more than they criticize retaliatory tariffs. Is my perception accurate? If so, it suggests that they view these non-economic factors as more relevant in one case than the other, and I’m curious whether such a view is warranted.